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LOT-927 Online Study12/7/2013

IBM

Exam Name: IBM Developing Portlets and Web Applications with IBM Web Experience Factory 8.0

LOT-927 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/LOT-927.html
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Question: 1

 

Tim has a web application that accesses a database through a provider model containing SQL Call builders. He thinks there might be a performance problem with one or more of the database calls. How can he get IBM Web Experience Factory to log detailed performance information about all aspects of the database access?

 

A. He needs to use a SQL Override builder. This builder provides several fields that enable detailed logging of performance information for database access.

B. He must enable DEBUG-level database performance tracing in the Log4J properties file and redeploy the WAR file.

C. He must enable the Log Server Stats input in each SQL Call builder.

D. No changes are required. Web Experience Factory automatically logs performance statistics for all executed actions, such as database access calls.

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 2

 

Jane wants to debug the Java code in one or more of the Method builders in her model. How can she leverage the Eclipse Java debugger to do so?

 

A. She must purchase full rights to the IBM Web Experience Factory source to debug generated Java.

B. This feature is not yet supported.

C. Right-click a method in the Application Tree view to set/toggle a breakpoint. Start the application server in debug mode and run the model with a remote Java debug configuration, as documented in the Web Experience Factory help.

D. System.out.println is the only way to debug Java associated with Method builders.

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 3

 

Sean wants to trace the value of a variable as a model he is running to help track down a problem somewhere in a computation later in the model. How can he trace the value of the variable?

 

A. Use the enable Debug Tracing field on the Variable builder.

B. Add an entry to the log4j.properties file indicating the model and action to trace.

C. Inspect the logging.properties file for variable values because all changes are reflected in this file at run time.

D. Add a Debug Tracing builder to the model specifying whether to trace all actions or naming a specific action to trace.

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 4

 

Dave wants to see information about web service parameters, URL endpoint, and SOAP envelope. What must he do to obtain this data for a particular Web Service Call builder?

 

A. There is no way for him to get this information other than contacting customer support.

B. He must use a Java debugger to get this information.

C. He must set the Logging field to All in the Web Service builder to log this information to the WEB-INF/logs/debugTracing.txt file.

D. This information is always printed to the standard output console log without any developer intervention required.

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 5

 

Which of the following is the ideal development configuration for building and testing portlets?

 

A. No publish is necessary. It all runs out of the project.

B. Manually publish the portlet WAR file and let the designer discover its location.

C. Publish the project two times, once to an application server, and once to an IBM WebSphere Portal server for development and testing.

D. Publish the application once to a WebSphere Portal server. IBM Web Experience Factory development applications run stand-alone and as portlets with one configuration.

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 6

 

Gloria has developed a simple web application using IBM Web Experience Factory. Because her company has not completed its deployment of IBM WebSphere Portal server, how can she deploy the application?

 

A. She can deploy the application on any HTTP server with Web Experience Factory core run times.

B. She can run the application in an embedded test environment, but not deploy it to users.

C. She can deploy the application as a WSRP application and consume it from another, non-WebSphere Portal environment.

D. She can deploy the application as a stand-alone application on IBM WebSphere Application Server, IBM WebSphere Application Server Community Edition, or Tomcat for development testing.

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 7

 

Tom has installed IBM WebSphere Portal to use as his development server. He would like to publish an existing project to the new server to test his portlets. What type of Server Configuration should he select for his server?

 

A. IBM WebSphere Portal Server

B. IBM WebSphere Application Server

C. IBM WebSphere Application Server and IBM WebSphere Portal Server

D. Pick the first one in the list and the software automatically determines the correct server type.

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 8

 

Jerald has created a web application project and included the Tutorials and Samples Building Models feature set. Now after working with the project, he would like to extend his application to include data from a Microsoft Excel or IBM Symphony spreadsheet. What steps should he take to include this new data, which might change over time?

 

A. Convert the Excel or Symphony file to HTML and include it as a page in the project.

B. Add a new imported file feature set using the right-click menu from the project.

C. Export the data to a comma-separated value (CSV) format and import it into a supported native data source.

D. Add the spreadsheet extension feature set by right-clicking the project and selecting IBM Web Experience Factory / Feature Info.

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 9

 

Paul has been working on a project that is being deployed in two different versions of IBM WebSphere Portal at his company. As a result, he needs to be able to test his code with both runtimes. How does he switch from one runtime to another?

 

A. Right-click on the module in the Project Explorer view and click Properties > Project Facets. The Project Facets page opens. Select the Runtimes tab. Under the Runtimes table, select the target servers for the module.

B. Open the .bowstreet file for the project and modify the runtimes element to include the new WebSphere Portal version.

C. Open web.xml and add a new runtime element under server runtime for the new WebSphere Portal version.

D. Create a new server configuration for the project and assign it as the default for the project.

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 10

 

Martin wants to see all WebApp artifacts in the Application Tree view, including those hidden by default. How can Martin see those hidden artifacts?

 

A. Hidden objects cannot be seen by developers in the current release of IBM Web Experience Factory.

B. Hidden objects can be enabled in the Web Experience Factory Preferences window.

C. Hidden objects can only be seen by examining the deployed portlet WAR file system.

D. There are no hidden objects created by Web Experience Factory. All builder-generated objects are always visible in Web Experience Factory Designer by default.

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 11

 

Lydia needs to create a set of CRUD services for a database table. The columns that must be retrieved from the database are a subset of those defined for the table. What is the most efficient way for Lydia to create these services?

 

A. Use the SQL Data Services builder to generate all of the CRUD operations and explicitly specify the set of columns used for the List and

Retrieve operations.

B. Use the SQL View and Form builder to define the CRUD services and automatically generate the CRUD user interface.

C. Use the SQL Service Definition builder and apply a Data Column Modifier to select only the desired columns.

D. Create a SQL Call builder for each CRUD operation and use a SQL Statement override to explicitly choose those columns needed for the SELECT operation.

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 12

 

Ralph wants to use IBM Web Experience Factory to quickly make a new portlet based on a REST service call, so that it has an input page, a view page, and a details page. What should be his first step?

 

A. Create JSP pages for the different pages.

B. Put a call to the REST Service Call builder in an existing portlet.

C. Use File / New / Web Experience Factory Model and select the REST-based View and Form.

D. Use a different approach. Web Experience Factory does not support REST services.

 

Answer: C

 

IBM

Exam Name: IBM Developing Portlets and Web Applications with IBM Web Experience Factory 8.0

LOT-927 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/LOT-927.html

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MSC-431 Preparation Material12/7/2013

Motorola

Exam Name: Motorola Lean Six Sigma Balck Belt

MSC-431 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/MSC-431.html
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15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

 

Question: 1

 

You are about to run a t-test on shield thickness from 2 suppliers when you determine the data from one group is not normally distributed and cannot be transformed. Your next step would be to?

 

A. Use the Shapiro-Wilk test

B. Proceed with the t-test

C. Use a non - parametric test

D. Discontinue the analysis

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 2

 

A manufacturing test process has 3 parallel machines performing exactly the same test. The data from this test process can be assumed to be normally distributed and the variances within each machine are the same. To understand if there is a significant statistical difference in the average test value between machines, what test should be used?

 

A. Kruskal - Wallis

B. Chi-Square

C. ANOVA

D. Bartlett or Levene

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 3

 

Which of the following is a commonly used test that examines the association between multiple discrete variables?

 

A. Kruskal-Wallace Test

B. Shapiro-Wilkes Test

C. Student’s t-Test

D. Chi-Square Test

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 4

 

An engineer is trying to increase a product characteristic mean from the current production 850Å to above 855Å. The standard deviation of the current process and the proposed process are assumed to be the same, Current = 7.7. The engineer wants to verify that the average difference of his new process as compared to the old process is statistically significant and is greater than 5Å. What are the correct statistical hypotheses for this engineering problem?

 

A. Ho: μ New - μ Old 5, Ha: μ New - μ Old > 5

B. Ho: μ New - μ Old=5, Ha: μ New - μ Old 5

C. Ho: μ New = 850, Ha: μ New > 850

D. Ho: New 7.7, Ha: New > 7.7

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 5

 

Which of the following statistical procedures is appropriate when there is one continuous input variable variable (X) and one continuous output variable (Y)?

 

A. T-test

B. Chi-Square test

C. One-Way ANOVA

D. Correlation

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 6

 

In a statistical analysis, the beta risk () is:

 

A. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true

B. Always equal to 0.10

C. Driven by the cost of sampling

D. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 7

 

Sigma Saving and Loans processes loans and leases from around the world. The CEO wants to know if the current cycle time for processing is less than 9.5 days on average. To test the claim that the average cycle time is less than 9.5 days, use:

 

A. A 1-sample T-test

B. A 2 sample T-test

C. A One-way ANOVA

D. A Chi-square test of means

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 8

 

Two different samples were pulled randomly from the same population. One sample is size n=10 and the other is size n=100. A two-sided confidence interval for the mean was calculated separately for each. How will the intervals compare?

 

A. The confidence interval for size n=10 will be smaller.

B. The confidence interval for size n=10 will be larger.

C. The confidence intervals will be the same for both n=10 and n=100.

D. There is not enough information given.

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 9

 

The purpose of a screening experiment using DOE is to?

 

-

-

-

-

-

 

A. Optimize the response by determining the best levels for the input factors

B. Separating the “vital few from the trivial many”

C. Comparing various levels for one factor

D. Finding a set of levels for the inputs that produce a robust product

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 10

 

Based on the DOE results illustrated in the image below, and considering the Hierarchy of Effects, what terms should be left in the model? Use an alpha of 0.10.

 

 

A. Temp, Time, Temp*Pressure

B. Temp, Time, Pressure, Temp*Pressure

C. Time, Temp + Pressure

D. Temp, Time

 

Answer: B

 

 

Motorola

Exam Name: Motorola Lean Six Sigma Balck Belt

MSC-431 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/MSC-431.html

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212-77 Real Exam12/7/2013

Eccouncil

Exam Name: Eccouncil Linux Security

212-77 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/212-77.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

 

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

 

Question: 1        

 

Which of the following is true of Linux passwords?

 

A. They are changed with the password utility.

B. They must be changed once a month.

C. They may consist only of lowercase letters and numbers.

D. They may be changed by the user who owns an account or by root.

 

Answer: A        

 

Question: 2        

 

Assume that you have just logged on as a regular user. Which of the following commands allows you to edit the file with user passwords associated with the Shadow Password Suite?

 

A. vi /etc/shadow

B. sudo -c "vi /etc/shadow"

C. su -c "vi /etc/shadow"

D. visu vi /etc/passwd

 

Answer: B        

 

Question: 3     

 

Under the bash shell which is the most appropriate place to set environment variables that apply to all users?

 

A. /etc/skel

B. rc.sysinit

C. /etc/profile

D. /etc/bashrc

E. rc.local

 

Answer: A     

 

Question: 4     

 

Which of the following measures is the most effective way to prevent attacks through various network services?

 

A. Disable a service in the appropriate /etc/xinetd.d configuration file.

B. Use a firewall to drop all requests to unneeded services.

C. Block service requests with the appropriate commands in /etc/hosts.deny.

D. Uninstall unneeded network services.

 

Answer: D     

 

Question: 5     

 

Which of the following statements applies to the IP address 192.168.0.1?

 

A. It is reserved.

B. It cannot be assigned to a host that accesses the Internet.

C. It is designated for multicast transmission.

D. It can be freely assigned to a host on a private network

 

Answer: A     

 

Question: 6     

 

Which of the following are ways to disable dynamic routing?

 

A. Thelinuxconf Gated Daemon screen

B. Thelinuxconf Routed Daemon screen

C. echo "0" > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/dynamic_routing

D. Editing /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts

 

Answer: B     

 

Eccouncil

Exam Name: Eccouncil Linux Security

212-77 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/212-77.html

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9A0-079 Study Material12/7/2013

Adobe

Exam Name: Adobe@ RoboHelp@ 7 ACE Exam

9A0-079 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/9A0-079.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

 

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

 

Question: 1     

 

Which command should you choose to show user defined variables as green text in the Design Editor?

 

A. View > Show > Positioning

B. View > Show > Tag List

C. View > Show > Fields

D. View > Show > Conditional Areas

E. View > Show > Glyphs

 

Answer: C     

 

Question: 2     

 

Which is the file name extension of a Snippet?

 

A. XPJ

B. HTS

C. CHM

D. CSS

 

Answer: B     

 

Question: 3     

 

To which item can a user defined variables be assigned?

 

A. glossary term

B. cascading style sheet

C. image map

D. table of contents book

 

Answer: D     

 

Question: 4     

 

Which item may be included in a snippet?

 

A. bookmarks

B. tables

C. header

D. footer

 

Answer: B     

 

Question: 5     

 

You are using the Printed Documentation Single Source Layout to create an MS Word document. You want to insure that Glossary hotspot expanding text is shown in the resulting document. What should you do?

 

A. click the Advanced button of the Printed Documentation Dialog box > Select Include glossary text from Advanced Options dialog box and click OK

B. select the project's Glossary from the dropdown list of the Printed Documentation Dialog box

C. choose Tools > Glossary Hotspot Wizard > select Automatically add definitions for all topics and click Finish

D. click the Advanced button of the Printed Documentation Dialog box > Select Include expanding text from Advanced Options dialog box and click OK

 

Answer: A     

 

Question: 6     

 

Your project deliverable is a file with the extension CHM. Which Single Source Layout would you choose?

 

A. WebHelp

B. WebHelp Pro

C. FlashHelp

D. MS HTML Help

 

Answer: D     

 

Question: 7     

 

You have been asked to change the name of the Start page that is created when you generate your Help. What should you do?

 

A. Show the Properties of the Single Source Layout and select the Start page from the Default topic area of the Option dialog box.

B. Show the Properties of the Single Source Layout and type the name of the new Start page into the Output Folder and Start Page area of the Option dialog box.

C. After generating the project, minimize or close RoboHelp. Then, using Windows Explorer, open the output folder, find the existing Start page and rename it (you can right-click the file and choose Rename).

D. Show the Properties of the Single Source Layout and edit the name of the Start page on the Skin Editor.

 

Answer: B     

 

Question: 8     

 

You are generating a PDF document from the Printed Documentation General dialog box. It is important that readers can access and jump to cross references in the output file. Which should you select from the Adobe PDF Settings dialog box?

 

A. attach source file to Adobe PDF

B. add bookmarks to Adobe PDF

C. add links to Adobe PDF

D. enable accessibility and reflow with Tagged PDF.

 

Answer: B     

 

Question: 9     

 

You want to have the option to include or exclude content from your output. What should you do before you generate the project?

 

A. select content and apply a snippet from the right click menu.

B. select content and apply conditional build tag from the right click menu.

C. select content and apply a user defined variable from the right click menu.

D. select content and apply an index keyword from the right click menu.

 

Answer: B     

 

Question: 10  

 

You have created two conditional build tags (Print and Online) and assigned them to content and topics. When you generate WebHelp, you create a conditional build tag expression and select the Print tag. Which will occur?

 

A. the output will include all topics and content that has the Print tag assigned.

B. the output will exclude all topics and content that has the Online tag assigned.

C. the output will exclude all topics and content that has the Print tag assigned.

D. the output will exclude all topics and content that has no tags assigned.

 

Answer: C  

 

 

Adobe

Exam Name: Adobe@ RoboHelp@ 7 ACE Exam

9A0-079 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/9A0-079.html

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00M-663 Online Study12/7/2013

IBM

Exam Name: IBM Digital Marketing Optimization Sales Mastery v1

00M-663 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/00M-663.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

 

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

 

Question: 1        

 

Name three benefits of the CSO Suite:

 

A. Market positioning: reduction in Average Handle Timer dispute resolution

B. Customer conversion, reduction in Average Handle Time, customer training

C. Cross-sell / up-sell, call avoidance, reduction in Average Handle Time

D. Improve site content, call avoidance, fraud forensics

 

Answer: B        

 

Question: 2        

 

Of the four brands that compose IBM Enterprise Marketing Management (EMM), which two make up the bulk of EMM's DMO capabilities?

 

A. Unica and Coremetrics

B. Unica and Tealeaf

C. Coremetrics and DemandTec

D. Coremetrics and Tealeaf

 

Answer: C        

 

Question: 3        

 

What is the product family that enables you to seamlessly integrate online customer experience data with other business application?

 

A. CSO Suite

B. CBA Suite

C. CX Mobile

D. cxConnect

 

Answer: A        

 

Question: 4        

 

Which applications do the CX Mobile support?

 

A. Native Apps and Mobile Site

B. HTML5, Hybrid Apps, and Native Apps

C. HTML5, Hybrid Apps, Native Apps, Mobile Site

D. HTML Native Apps, and Hybrid Apps

 

Answer: B        

 

Question: 5        

 

What are the two key features of cxImpact?

 

A. Replay search and basic reporting

B. Replay and audits

C. Performance reporting and form conversion

D. Session history and summary reports

 

Answer: C        

 

Question: 6        

 

What market factors is this target audience looking to address with the DMO solution?

 

A. Data security

B. Privacy concerns

C. Just-In-Time inventory

D. Data explosion and social media

 

Answer: B        

 

 

IBM

Exam Name: IBM Digital Marketing Optimization Sales Mastery v1

00M-663 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/00M-663.html

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HP2-K34 Exam Questions & answers12/7/2013

HP

Exam Name: Supporting and Servicing HP 3PAR StoreServ Solutions

HP2-K34 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/HP2-K34.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

Question: 1

 

You are running the SmartStart Installation procedure to install an HP StoreServ 7400 Storage System. Which users, created during the installation process, will have access to this storage system? (Select two.)

 

A. 3paradm

B. 3parcust

C. 3parAO

D. 3parSP

E. 3PARrm

 

Answer: A, B

 

Explanation:

 

Reference:http://bizsupport2.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03606526/c03606526.pdf (search for 3paradm and 3parcust)

 

 

Question: 2

 

Which zoning rule must be followed to implement Remote Copy over Fibre Channel?

 

A. Every FC port used for Remote Copy should be zoned with the hosts whose LUNs are replicating.

B. All FC ports on odd nodes should be zoned with the FC ports on the even remote node.

C. A Remote Copy FC port should be zoned to only one other Remote Copy FC port on another system.

D. All Remote Copy FC ports in a storage server should be placed in the same zone.

 

Answer: D

 

 

Question: 3

 

As a consultant, you are configuring Peer Motion during an initial setup of the HP 3PAR StoreServ systems. What must you consider to ensure the correct configuration of a Peer Motion environment?

 

A. Executing the Peer Motion Manager script requires Browse user-rights for the accounts used to log in to the source array and Super user-rights for the destination array.

B. Two FC switches are required; only fabric connections on initiator ports are supported, and the host and source system must use the same IP protocol version.

C. The Peer Motion Manager script executes in a command window of Microsoft Windows running on a Peer Motion Manager Server.

D. The WWN of the VLUNs imported to the new array will become the S/N of the legacy array.

 

Answer: C

 

 

Question: 4 HOTSPOT

 

Match each description to the correct HP 3PAR StoreServ thin technology.

 

 

 

Answer:

 

 

 

Explanation:

Thin built in zero detection: feature of the HP 3PAR ASIC that recognizes and virtualizes blocks of zeros on the fly.

Thin conversion:

changes inefficient volumes on legacy arrays to more efficient, higher-utilization volumes by using the zero-detection capabilities within the HP 3PAR ASIC

Thin copy reclamation:

reclaims unused space resulting from the deletion of virtual copy snapshots.

Thin Persistence:

reclaims unused space associated with deleted data

Thin provisioning:

allocates capacity only as data is actually written

 

Explanation:

 

Reference:http://www.techsoft.at/fileadmin/techsoft/newsletter/dezember_2010/3par.pdf

 

 

Question: 5

 

Which situation prevents you from using SmartStart to install an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 system at a customer site?

 

A. DHCP is not running in the customer environment

B. The customer will not allow remote access of the Service Processor

C. The controller nodes and the service processor are connected to the same network.

D. All the customer servers are running Windows 2008 R2.

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 6

 

When using notification settings in Service Tools and Technical Support (STaTS). Which task can you perform with Symptom?

 

A. Disable a specific notification

B. Enable a specific notification

C. Create a notification record.

D. Manage a set of notifications.

 

Answer: C

 

Explanation:

 

Reference:http://bizsupport2.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03606505/c03606505.pdf (page 11)

 

 

HP

Exam Name: Supporting and Servicing HP 3PAR StoreServ Solutions

HP2-K34 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/HP2-K34.html

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HP2-H28 Test Certificatin12/7/2013

HP

Exam Name: HP Selling HP Printing and Computing Services

HP2-H28 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/HP2-H28.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

Question: 1

 

Which service allows the business to keep and dispose of their defective hard drive if their security policies require it?

 

A. Data Protection

B. Keep Safe

C. Defective Media Retention

D. Remote Delete

 

Answer: C

 

Reference: http://www.hp.com/sbso/services/hp-defective-media-retention.pdf

 

Question: 2

 

Which areas do the HP Care Pack services cover for consumers?

 

A. Deployment, Usage, and Care

B. Configuration, Usage, and Care

C. Usage with HP Smart Friend only

D. Care services only

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 3

 

Which statement is true about HP Care Pack Services?

 

A. HP Care Pack services are configurable to many devices with invoicing during the contract duration,

B. HP Care Pack Services cover care services only.

C. HP Care Pack Services cover deployment, usage, and care services in both Consumer and Business markets.

D. HP Care Pack Services cover a wide range of accessories (e.g.. mouse, key boards) that can be purchased with HP hardware.

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 4

 

How do services help customers?

 

A. Services help customers maintain communications and trade with their customers and suppliers.

B. Services help employees be more productive and increase their value to the business.

C. Services help customers achieve their everyday business targets.

D. Services help customers configure business email on their cellular phones.

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 5

 

Which statement is true about HP Printing and Personal Systems Attach Services?

 

A. Deployment services offer business customers preconfigured hardware with custom images. The customer should, however, expect some disruptions during installation.

B. Deployment services gets hardware installed in businesses or connected at home, ready to use.

C. Consumer usage services enhance customer experience by offering a high level of security.

D. Usage services only target the Consumer market

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 6

 

Which devices are covered by K2 Graphics support service line (printing)?

 

A. Corporate, Enterprise and Public sector HP Laserjet printers

B. HP Designjet printers

C. HP Tablets and Slates

D. HP Entry level Inkjet printers

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 7

 

What is an effect of adding services to hardware deals?

 

A. decreases profit

B. easier repeat sales

C. increases complexity of the offer

D. services selling has little effect on hardware deals

 

Answer: B

 

 

HP

Exam Name: HP Selling HP Printing and Computing Services

HP2-H28 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/HP2-H28.html

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000-303 Exam Certification12/7/2013

IBM

Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere DataStage v9.1

000-303 PDF

http://www.testsexpert.com/000-303.html
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15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

Question: 1

 

In your ETL application design you have found several areas of common processing requirements in the mapping specifications. These common logic areas found include: code validation lookups and name formatting. The common logic areas have the same logic, but the jobs using them would have different column metadata. Choose the action that gives you the best reusability design to effectively implement these common logic areas in your ETL application?

 

A. Create parallel routines for each of the common logic areas and for each of the unique column metadata formats.

B. Create separate jobs for each layout and choose the appropriate job to run within a job sequencer.

C. Create parallel shared containers and define columns combining all data formats.

D. Create parallel shared containers with Runtime Column Propagation (RCP) ON and define only necessary common columns needed for the logic.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 2

 

When optimizing a job, Balanced Optimization will NOT search the job for what pattern?

 

A. Links

B. Stages

C. Sequencers

D. Property Settings

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 3

 

You are asked to optimize the fork join job design in the exhibit. This job uses the sort aggregator and a left outer join on the ZIP code column. Currently all partitioning is set to "Auto" and automatic sort insertion is allowed.

 

Which change will reduce the cost of partitioning that occurs in this job?

 

A. Use Entire partitioning on the input links to the Aggregator and Join stages.

B. Hash partition and sort on ZIP code column on the input links to the Aggregator and Join stages.

C. Hash partition and sort on ZIP code column prior to the Copy stage and use entire partitioning on the Aggregator and Join stages.

D. Hash partition and sort on ZIP code column prior to the Copy stage, and use same partitioning on the Aggregator and Join stages.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 4

 

You have a parallel job that based on operational recoverability requirements needs to be broken up into two separate parallel jobs. You have decided to use the Data Set stage to support this job design change. What two characteristics of Data Sets make them a good design consideration in your jobs design change? (Choose two.)

 

A. They sort the data in a staging area.

B. They automatically convert data types.

C. They persist the parallelism of the job creating them.

D. They use the same data types as the parallel framework.

E. They persist parallelism into a temporary repository table.

 

Answer: C,D   

 

Question: 5

 

What two binding types are supported by Information Services Director (ISD) for a parallel job that is designed to be used as a service? (Choose two.)

 

A. EJB

B. SQL

C. HDFS

D. SOAP

E. STREAMS

 

Answer: A,D   

 

Question: 6

 

You are assigned to correct a job from another developer. The job contains 20 stages sourcing data from two Data Sets and many sequential files. The annotation in the job indicates who wrote the job and when, not the objective of the job. All link and stage names use the default names. One of the output columns has an incorrect value which should have been obtained using a lookup. What could the original developer have done to make this task easier for maintenance purposes?

 

A. Name all stage and links the same.

B. Name all stages and links based on what they do.

C. Indicate all stage names within the job annotation.

D. Name all stage and links with column names and ideas.

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 7

 

You are asked by management to document all jobs written to make future maintenance easier. Which statement is true about annotations?

 

A. The short job description can be identified within the Description Annotation stage.

B. The Description Annotation stage contains both the short and full descriptions for the job.

C. The background for the Description Annotation stage can be changed for each unique stage.

D. The Description Annotation stage can be added several times at different locations to identify business logic.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 8

 

A job design consists of an input Row Generator stage, a Filter stage, followed by a Transformer stage and an output Sequential File stage. The job is run on an SMP machine with a configuration file defined with three nodes. The $APT_DISABLE_COMBINATION variable is set to True. How many player processes will this job generate?

 

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 16

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 9

 

Which partitioning method requires a key?

 

A. Same

B. Modulus

C. Sort Merge

D. Round Robin

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 10

 

A job design consists of an input Row Generator stage, a Sort stage, followed by a Transformer stage and an output Data Set stage. The job is run on an SMP machine with a configuration file defined with four nodes. The $APT_DISABLE_COMBINATION variable is set to True. How many player processes will this job generate?

 

A. 7

B. 16

C. 13

D. 16

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 11

 

The data going into the target Sequential Files stage is range-partitioned and sorted. Which technique method would be the most efficient to create a globally sorted target sequential file?

 

A. Select an in-stage sort in the final Sequential File stage.

B. Select the Ordered collector method for the final Sequential File stage.

C. Select the Sort Merge collector method for the final Sequential File stage.

D. Insert a Funnel stage before the final Sequential File stage and select Sequence as Funnel Type.

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 12

 

In the exhibit, a Funnel stage has two input links. Input 1 (Seq_File) comes from a Sequential File stage with "Readers per Node" set to "2". Input 2 (Dataset) comes from a dataset created with 3 partitions. In the Funnel stage, the funnel type is set to "Sequence".

 

The parallel configuration file contains 4 nodes. How many instances of the Funnel stage run in parallel?

 

 

 

 

 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

 

Answer: C 

 

 

IBM

Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere DataStage v9.1

000-303 Questions

http://www.testsexpert.com/000-303.html

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000-276 Real Dumps12/7/2013

IBM

Exam Name: IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development

000-276 PDF

http://www.testsexpert.com/000-276.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

Question: 1

 

A BPM application developer is developing assets at a company with the following BPM infrastructure:

A) One Process Center environment The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access this environment

B) Three runtime environments- Test, Staging, and Production Each runtime environment is a two node, clustered environment They are all configured as "online" environments The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments The BPM application developer has been asked to create a Saved Search in each environment using the Process Admin Console. How many times must the BPM application developer open a Process Admin Console to make this change?

 

A. 1 time, since the Process Center environment's Process Admin console manages all online environments

B. 2 times, once for the Process Center environment and once for the runtime environments

C. 4 times, since each environment has it's own Process Admin console

D. 7 times, since each node in each environment has its own Process Admin console

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 2

 

A BPM application developer is developing a BPM solution in a process application called 'Auto Loan Review Process' (ALREV). ALREV has an existing dependency on a toolkit called 'Financial Calculation Services' (FCSERV). The developer is asked to update an integration service in FCSERV and use that new service in ALREV.

What steps must the developer take to ensure that ALREV will utilize the new service created in FCSERV?

 

A. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV

2. Take a snapshot of FCSERV

3. Update the dependency of ALREV from the FCSERV toolkit

B. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV

2. Take a snapshot of FCSERV

3. Update dependency on FCSERV from the ALREV process application

C. 1. Create a new integration service in ALREV

2. Move the new integration service from ALREV to FCSERV

3. Take a snapshot of FCSERV

D. 1. Take a snapshot of FCSERV

2. Update the integration service in FCSERV

3. Update dependency on FCSERV in the ALREV process application

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 3

 

A BPM application developer has completed the development of a process application. The team lead has now directed the application developer to install the snapshot onto a staging server for additional testing before it is moved into production. Assuming the default Process Server settings are in place, what minimum level of access must the developer have in order to install the snapshot onto the staging server? The application developer must have, at a minimum:

 

A. write access to the process application with no additional group membership.

B. write access to the process application and must be a member of the process-center-installgroup as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.

C. administrative access to the process application with no additional group membership.

D. administrative access to the process application and must be a member of the process-centerinstall- group as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 4

 

A BPM application developer has completed the development of a high profile process application and is now ready to deploy the solution into the test environment. The application developer has been told to allow one peer developer and the technical team lead to review and approve the work before it can be installed onto the test server. The application developer's manager has requested that the process of gathering these approvals be automated for auditing purposes. What steps must the BPM application developer take in order to fulfill this requirement? The BPM application developer must:

 

A. enable governance on the high profile process and use wsadmin to install the process.

B. create a business process definition, inside of the high profile process application, to implement the approvals governance process.

C. ask a user with the administrative authority to create a System Governance toolkit dependency to create a process application that will be used for governance.

D. ensure that there is a task in the governance process that will allow a designated person to install the process, using Process Center, after all approvals have been received.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 5

 

After deploying a snapshot onto the production server, the BPM application developer wants to have two development versions of the process application, one for the resolution of issues that needs to get fixed immediately in production and one for the development of new features. How can the BPM application developer obtain the necessary development versions without creating a new process application?

 

A. Create a new snapshot for the process application.

B. Create a clone of the snapshot installed in production.

C. Create a new track from the snapshot installed in production.

D. Import the snapshot installed in production into the Process Center.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 6

 

A BPM application developer has built an integration service that executes SQL calls. Within this service, the BPM application developer makes use of the "SQL Execute Statement" service found within the TWSYS toolkit. Review the snapshot of the data mapping for this service. The BPM application developer wants to manage the "dataSourceName" value at runtime, instead of hardcoding the value "jdbc/BPMTEST".

 

Which features of IBM Business Process Manager V8.0 will allow the BPM application developer to do this? (Choose two)

 

A. environment variables

B. auto tracked variables

C. localization resources

D. shared process variables

E. exposed process variables

 

Answer: A,E   

 

Question: 7

 

A process owner of an insurance company requests to receive an email if the amount of a loan is higher than $50,000. After creating the custom Key Performance Indicator (KPI) Amount (currency) and associating it to the activity, how should the BPM application developer configure the Assignment Setting to set the value of the KPI to the amount of the loan object? Uncheck "use KPI defaults", and apply the following settings.

 

A. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value

Value: tw.local.loan.amount

B. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value

Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount

C. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript

Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount

D. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript

Value: tw.local.loan.amount

 

Answer: D

 

 

 

IBM

Exam Name: IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development

000-276 Questions

http://www.testsexpert.com/000-276.html

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NS0-510 Real Exam12/7/2013

Network Appliance

Exam Name: Network Appliance NCIE-Backup & Recovery Implementation Engineer Exam

NS0-510 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/NS0-510.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

Question: 1

 

Which two technologies serve as the basis for SnapVault-based backups? (Choose two.)

 

A. QSM

B. VSM

C. SyncMirror

D. Snapshot

 

Answer: A,D

 

Question: 2

 

Which NetApp backup and recovery solution is best for backing up remote office heterogeneous data storage?

 

A. Snapshot copies

B. SnapManager

C. SnapVault

D. Open System SnapVault

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 3

 

From which three platforms does Open Systems SnapVault support backup and restore? (Choose three.)

 

A. IBM AIX

B. SunOS

C. HP HP-UX

D. Linux

E. Windows NT, Windows 2000, and Windows Server 2003

F. SGI IRIX

 

Answer: A,C,D

 

Question: 4

 

What are three components of an Open Systems SnapVault (OSSV) installation? (Choose three.)

 

A. Primary System

B. Secondary System

C. OSSV agent installed on the primary system

D. OSSV agent installed on the secondary system

E. NetApp primary system

 

Answer: A,B,C

 

Question: 5

 

The NearStore VTL provides a masking function to control Host access to virtual devices.

 

A. True

B. False

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 6

 

The SnapVault Secondary is configured for user access of qtrees via NAS. How do you restore a file?

 

A. by using SnapRestore

B. by using the SnapVault GUI

C. by users with sufficient privileges

D. by only storage administrators with sufficient privileges

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 7

 

A-SIS optimization can be configured at _____.

 

A. the volume level only

B. the aggregate level only

C. both the aggregate and volume levels

D. the qtree level

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 8

 

What are two applications that can manage Open Systems SnapVault-based backup environments via NDMP? (Choose two.)

 

A. NetApp Protection Manager

B. Legato Networker

C. Symantec NetBackup

D. Syncsort Backup Express

 

Answer: A,D

 

Question: 9

 

SnapVault is a disk-based backup solution that _____. (Choose three.)

 

A. enables backup of heterogeneous primary storage systems to a NetApp secondary storage system

B. enables restoration of data from a SnapVault secondary storage system, with minimum downtime and better reliability than tape-based backup and restore

C. requires both NetApp primary and secondary storage systems

D. enables data stored on multiple NetApp storage systems to be backed up to a central secondary system as read-only Snapshot copies

 

Answer: B,C,D

 

Question: 10

 

When a SnapVault Secondary requests an incremental backup from the primary, the SnapVault Primary creates a new snapshot and compares it to the most recent ONTAP-scheduled snapshot in order to identify the changed data blocks.

 

A. True

B. False

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 11

 

Which two events occur when a volume with qtrees is backed up using SnapVault from Primary to Secondary? (Choose two.)

 

A. Qtrees in Primary are stored as qtrees on Secondary.

B. Qtrees in Primary are stored as directories on Secondary.

C. Restores of original volume from Secondary to Primary are done as a qtree.

D. Restores of original volume from Secondary to Primary are done as a volume.

 

Answer: B,C

 

Question: 12

 

What is the maximum number of concurrent A-SIS sessions on a NetApp controller?

 

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 13

 

Without the nearstore_option license installed, what are the total concurrent SnapVault transfer streams for the FAS3020/3050?

 

A. 16 for FC drives and 8 for SATA drives

B. 8 for FC drives and 16 for SATA drives

C. 32 for FC drives and 16 for SATA drives

D. 16 for FC drives and 32 for SATA drives

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 14

 

Which two NetApp products support heterogeneous storage environments? (Choose two.)

 

A. NearStore VTL

B. SnapVault

C. OSSV

D. StoreVault

 

Answer: A,C

 

Question: 15

 

SnapVault supports a multi-vendor storage infrastructure environment.

 

A. True

B. False

 

Answer: B

 

 

Network Appliance

Exam Name: Network Appliance NCIE-Backup & Recovery Implementation Engineer Exam

NS0-510 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/NS0-510.html

 

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JN0-533 E-Books10/7/2013

Juniper

Exam Name: Juniper FWV, Specialist (JNCIS-FWV)

JN0-533 PDF

http://www.testsexpert.com/JN0-533.html

Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

 

Question: 1

 

Which ScreenOS security feature helps protect against port scans and denial of service attacks?

 

A. session-based stateful firewall

B. IPsec VPNs

C. security policies

D. Screen options

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 2

 

What is the initial default username and password for all ScreenOS devices?

 

A. administrator/password

B. root/password

C. netscreen/netscreen

D. admin/netscreen1

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 3

 

What is a virtual system?

 

A. a mechanism to logically partition a single ScreenOS device into multiple logical devices

B. a collection of subnets and interfaces sharing identical security requirements

C. a method of providing a secure connection across a network

D. a tool to protect against DoS attacks

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 4

 

What is a zone?

 

A. a set of rules that controls traffic from a specified source to a specified destination using a specified service

B. a collection of subnets and interfaces sharing identical security requirements

C. a method of providing a secure connection across a network

D. a tool to protect against DoS attacks

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 5

 

What is the function of NAT?

 

A. It performs Layer 3 routing.

B. It evaluates and redirects matching traffic into secure tunnels.

C. It provides translation between IP addresses.

D. It performs Layer 2 switching.

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 6

 

On a ScreenOS device, which word appears at the beginning of configuration commands?

 

A. set

B. configure

C. enable

D. commit

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 7

 

Which action does a ScreenOS device perform first when processing a packet?

 

A. It checks for an existing session.

B. It checks for attacks in the payload.

C. It performs a route lookup.

D. It performs a policy lookup.

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 8

 

On a ScreenOS device, which three processes does the task CPU handle? (Choose three.)

 

A. policy evaluation

B. traffic logging

C. session table clean-up

D. management services

E. broadcast packet processing

 

Answer: B, C, D

 

Question: 9

 

A ScreenOS device evaluates five primary elements when performing a security policy check on a new session. Which five elements are evaluated?

 

A. source IP address, destination IP address, source route, source port, and destination port

B. source IP address, destination IP address, source port, destination port, and protocol

C. source IP address, destination IP address, source port, destination port, and payload

D. destination IP address, source port, destination port, protocol, and payload

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 10

 

You want to enable IPv6 on your ScreenOS device.

Which command should you use to accomplish this goal?

 

A. set envar ipv6=enable

B. set ipv6 enable

C. set envar ipv6=yes

D. set ipv6 yes

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 11

 

Your ScreenOS device does not have a static IP address. You want to be able to access it using its FQDN. How would you implement this task?

 

A. Configure a domain in DNS.

B. Configure syslog.

C. Configure SNMP.

D. Configure DDNS.

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 12

 

You have just installed a new ScreenOS device in your network and you want only a select range of IP addresses to have administrative access to the device.

 

Which choice will allow you to accomplish this?

 

A. Configure a manager IP.

B. Configure the management interface.

C. Configure a management IP on the trust interface.

D. Configure new system administrators.

 

Answer: A

 

 

Juniper

Exam Name: Juniper FWV, Specialist (JNCIS-FWV)

JN0-533 Questions

http://www.testsexpert.com/JN0-533.html

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HP5-K03D Study Material10/7/2013

HP

Exam Name: HP Delta - Supporting and Servicing HP 3PAR StoreServ Solutions

HP5-K03D PDF

http://www.testsexpert.com/HP5-K03D.html

 

Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

 

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

 

Question: 1        

 

Refer to the exhibit.

 

 

You are installing an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 with an additional M6720 drive enclosure. Where should you install four LFF NL disks and four LFF SSDs in the new enclosure for a supported configuration'?

 

A. SSD drives in Slot 0, 4, 8, and 12; NL drives in Slot 16, 20, 1, and 5

B. SSD drives in Slot 0, 4, 8, and 12; NL drives in Slot 3, 7, 11, and 15

C. NL drives in Slot 0, 1, 2, and 3; SSD drives in Slot 4, 5, 6, and 7

D. NL drives in Slot 0, 3, 20, and 23; SSD drives in Slot 4, 16, 7, and 19

 

Answer: B        

 

Explanation:

LFF drives must be loaded in pairs of identical drives starting at the bottom of a column, leaving no empty slots between drives in the column. Columns of drives in the M6720 enclosure must be of the same type (SSD or NL) and, for HDDs, the same rotational speed. Drives of different types may not be mixed in a single column. It is permitted to have empty columns between columns containing drives. Different columns do not have to contain the same number of drives

 

Question: 2     

 

A customer has tested an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 in a try-and-buy scenario and now wants to buy the system. During the initial setup, the customer decides against a connection to HP 3PAR Central. The customer wants you to enable the connection in Secure Network Mode (SNM). Which port should you enable on the customer's firewall?

 

A. 20 (FTP)

B. 161 (SNMP)

C. 389 (LDAP)

D. 443 (HTTPS)

 

Answer: B     

 

Question: 3     

 

What is the procedure change when you use HP 3PAR SmartStart during an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 installation?

 

A. A default password is no longer generated for the 3paradm account.

B. The serial ports on the system are disabled.

C. All hosts accessing LUNs on the system must be configured using HP 3PAR SmartStart.

D. The Virtual Service Processor must be used

 

Answer: C     

 

Question: 4     

 

Your customer has a two-node HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 with two additional drive shelves. They have just purchased an additional 16 SFF drives. What must the customer do when adding the drives to the enclosures'?

 

A. Perform an autonomic rebalance after adding the drives,

B. Run System Tuner on the CPGs using the new drives.

C. Add a minimum of two drives to each enclosure

D. Attach the same number and type of drives to each node pair.

 

Answer: D     

 

 

HP

Exam Name: HP Delta - Supporting and Servicing HP 3PAR StoreServ Solutions

HP5-K03D Questions

http://www.testsexpert.com/HP5-K03D.html

 

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HP5-E01D E-Books10/7/2013

HP

Exam Name: HP Delta - Selling HP SMB Solutions

HP5-E01D PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/HP5-E01D.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

 

Question: 1        

 

How do HP VDI solutions support customers with "Bring Your Own Device" (BYOD) initiatives?

 

A. Employees are only allowed to connect to the data center with devices that are purchased through a reputable HP dealer or reseller

B. Employee-owned devices are implicitly allowed to connect to the data center through a virtual desktop, providing employees maximum freedom and flexibility in their work environment

C. HP VDI solutions include a 'back door' access procedure that allows employees to bypass security checkpoints when connecting to the data center with their personal devices.

D. Client visualization software runs on qualified endpoint devices to enable users to securely connect to the data center through a virtual desktop.

 

Answer: B        

 

Explanation:

Reference:

http://blogs.softchoice.com/advisor/ssn/security-for-your-byod-environment-in-3-simple-steps/

 

Question: 2        

 

Your customer's consulting business is experiencing a decline in growth. The customer needs to reduce operating expenses. With a seat size of 45 employees, how can visualization help the customer operate efficiently?

 

A. reduce network traffic on the company's intranet, reducing overall operating expenses

B. provide ability to split up workloads for higher efficiencies and better application support

C. move all operations to the cloud, eliminating the need for onsite IT support

D. eliminate the need to refresh hardware which reduces overall capital expenses

 

Answer: C        

 

Question: 3        

 

What top concern might a customer in the healthcare industry have with client virtualization?

 

A. System Availability - a virtualized client environment is far less reliable than a traditional IT data center

B. IT Efficiency - client virtualization increases employee flexibility but burdens IT with increased support demands for routine activities

C. Security - client virtualization is risky because it exposes the business environment and its assets to malicious intrusion

D. Employee Productivity - client virtualization imposes a steep learning curve on employees as it requires a change in how they interact with the data center

 

Answer: C        

 

Explanation:

Reference:

http://searchitchannel.techtarget.com/feature/Health-care-VDI-projects-in-high-demand

 

Question: 4        

 

What cost-effective solution component enables branch office workers to continue collaborating with each other and making external calls even when the corporate network is unavailable?

 

A. Survivable Branch Communication zl Module powered by Lync

B. HP Intelligent Management Center

C. Redundant IT Infrastructure at the branch office

D. Redundant Branch Office Network switches

 

Answer: A        

 

Explanation:

Reference:

http://h17007.www1.hp.com/docs/one/4AA0-8924ENN.pdf

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question: 5     

 

 

What is a good way to introduce HP Lync Solutions into a conversation with a customer?

 

A. by asking the customer to identify the specific features of their PBX phone system they like most

B. by finding out if the customer is satisfied with their current PBX provider

C. by asking the customer how they plan to address the obsolescence of their legacy PBX

D. by asking about additional features the customer would like to see included in their PBX

 

Answer: C     

 

 

HP

Exam Name: HP Delta - Selling HP SMB Solutions

HP5-E01D Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/HP5-E01D.html

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HH0-050 Study Material10/7/2013

Hitachi

Exam Name: Hitachi Data Systems Storage Technology

HH0-050 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/HH0-050.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

 

Question: 1     

 

Which three Fibre Channel topologies are used in SAN implementations? (choose three.)

 

A. arbitrated loop

B. physical

C. switched fabric

D. point-to-point

E. logical

 

Answer: A,C,D     

 

Question: 2     

 

What is a Host Bus Adaptor (HBA)?

 

A. A compact optical device that connects to switches and transmits and receives data.

B. A device that connects multiple computers together to form a network segment.

C. A non-volatile data storage device.

D. A Fibre Channel interface that connects a computer to a storage network.

 

Answer: D     

 

Question: 3     

 

What are two benefits of using snapshots as part of an in-system replication solution? (Choose two.)

 

A. Snapshots provide storage-efficient copies of the data.

B. Snapshots create a physical clone of the data.

C. Volumes are restored faster from snapshot copies.

D. Snapshots provide point-in-time data copies.

 

Answer: A,D     

 

Question: 4     

 

What are two characteristics of array-based asynchronous remote replication? (Choose two.)

 

A. It supports server performance under load.

B. It is installed and run on a server.

C. It can be implemented over a WAN.

D. It does not ensure data consistency.

 

Answer: A,C     

 

Question: 5     

 

When using IP to transfer data over a network, which protocol re-combines IP packets into the correct order to re-create the message sent from the source?

 

A. FCIP

B. iFCP

C. UDP

D. TCP

 

Answer: D     

 

Question: 6     

 

An online bank wants to improve their environmental credentials by reducing power consumption and heat output in their data center, but without affecting service levels. Which three strategies would they use to meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

 

A. Add more data storage.

B. Consolidate existing storage.

C. Reduce data center hotspots.

D. Implement virtualization strategies.

E. Migrate customer data to off-line storage.

 

Answer: B,C,D     

 

Question: 7     

 

Which type of tiered data requires a storage infrastructure that provides reasonable performance and availability and must recover within 8 hours of a failure?

 

A. mission-critical data

B. business-critical data

C. nearline data

D. offline data

 

Answer: B     

 

Question: 8     

 

Which two features help reduce power consumption on a storage system? (Choose two.)

 

A. on-demand cache partitioning

B. ability to turn off HDDs when not accessed

C. adaptive dual power battery backup

D. dynamic fan speed adjustment

 

Answer: B,D     

 

Question: 9  

 

What is an advantage of cache partitioning?

 

A. dynamic reallocation of cache resource by performance criteria

B. optimized storage system performance

C. improved security against unauthorized administrative access

D. automated data copy to a secondary partition

 

Answer: B  

 

Question: 10  

 

A large healthcare company wants to implement an object store in their application. Which three are considered to be an object? (Choose three.)

 

A. a mirror copy of a data volume

B. an MRI Image file

C. a lab report in pdf format

D. a file services structure of active data

E. an ultrasound video file

 

Answer: B,C,E  

 

 

Hitachi

Exam Name: Hitachi Data Systems Storage Technology

HH0-050 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/HH0-050.html

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E20-814 Online Study10/7/2013

EMC

Exam Name: EMC Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators

E20-814 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/E20-814.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

 

Question: 1     

 

A company's administrator has implemented Symmetrix Access Control. The motherboard in the UNIX host with ADMIN privileges was replaced. After this change, the administrator was unable to issue any Symmetrix Management commands. What is the next step the administrator should take?

 

A. Regenerate the Unique ID

B. Reboot the UNIX host

C. Reset the Access Control database

D. Reinstall Solutions Enabler

 

Answer: A     

 

Question: 2     

 

All applications running on an EMC Symmetrix VMAX array are experiencing poor performance. The environment is characterized by: • Dissimilar workloads • Inefficient resource utilization • Service levels not being met What can be done to guarantee service levels of business critical applications?

 

A. Implement dynamic cache partitioning

B. Balance throughput across ports

C. Re-map devices to evenly map the workload

D. Provision new storage for applications

 

Answer: A     

 

Question: 3     

 

SRDF/EDP is running in Adaptive Copy Disk mode from the source (R1) site to the secondary (R21) site. Which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and the R2 sites?

 

A. Adaptive Copy Write Pending

B. Adaptive Copy Disk

C. Synchronous

D. Semi-synchronous

 

Answer: A     

 

Question: 4     

 

A company has activated a consistent clone replica of an Oracle database using hot backup mode on February 26th. The Oracle instance continues to run until March 6th. On March 7th, the company realizes that an application problem occurred on February 28th. What is the most recent point to which the database can be recovered?

 

A. February 26th

B. February 28th

C. March 6th

D. March 7th

 

Answer: B     

 

Question: 5     

 

A company uses VMware ESXi servers and EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage arrays. The storage administrators use the VMware vSphere client on their Microsoft Windows desktops to manage the environment. They would like to use the EMC Virtual Storage Integrator Path Management plug-in. Which path management activities will this plug-in allow?

 

A. Set multi-pathing policy for all Symmetrix devices

B. Set multi-pathing policy for individual Symmetrix devices

C. Change the multi-pathing ownership of all Symmetrix devices from NMP to PowerPath/VE

D. Change the multi-pathing ownership of individual Symmetrix devices from NMP to PowerPath/VE

 

Answer: A     

 

Question: 6     

 

A company has a vSphere environment consisting of eight ESXi hosts. Each host is running EMC PowerPath/VE and is connected to multiple FA ports on their Symmetrix. PowerPath/VE will not claim the disk devices presented by their storage array even though the devices are seen by the hosts. What is the most likely solution?

 

A. Configure and register the PowerPath/VE license file

B. Check LUN masking on the array

C. Change the PowerPath/VE failover policy to Symopt

D. Uninstall and reinstall PowerPath/VE

 

Answer: A     

 

Question: 7     

 

An Oracle ASM disk group consists of two 50 GB LUNs and is currently in use. The Oracle database requires more storage space and has two 100 GB LUNs available. What is the recommended way to organize ASM disk groups to make use of additional space?

 

A. Create a new disk group containing two 100 GB LUNs

B. Extend the current disk group to include the two 100 GB LUNs

C. Create two new disk groups containing one 100 GB LUN each

D. Double the disk group size by extending with one 100 GB LUN

 

Answer: A     

 

Question: 8  

 

A company is planning to migrate their Oracle database to EMC Symmetrix VMAX to support decision support system applications. They would like design guidelines to overcome the existing performance bottlenecks. What is the key design guideline?

 

A. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 5 protection

B. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles RAID 5 protection

C. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles with RAID 1 protection

D. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 1 protection

 

Answer: D  

 

Question: 9  

 

A company uses EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage for their VMware vSphere environment. They intend to use SRDF/S for disaster recovery. What is a consideration when mounting datastores on the remote site after a failover?

 

A. Keep the existing signature on the replica datastore

B. Assign a new signature to the replica datastore

C. Replica datastore must be mounted as read only

D. Original datastore must be unmounted before the replica datastore can be mounted

 

Answer: A  

 

Question: 10  

 

Storage administrators for an EMC Symmetrix VMAX need to increase allocated storage for Microsoft Exchange LUNs without interrupting its operation. Performing a virtual LUN migration causes a critical nightly clone operation to run for hours instead of minutes. This impacts later dependent jobs, preventing production operations from completing. How can this impact to the nightly process be minimized?

 

A. Set a QoS value of 8 for MIR Copy Pace

B. Set a QoS value of 0 for MIR Copy Pace

C. Set SPC value of 1 on the Exchange LUNs

D. Set SPC value of 8 on the clone LUNs

 

Answer: A  

 

Question: 11  

 

A company intends to manage their EMC Symmetrix VMAX array with Solutions Enabler installed on a VMware Virtual Machine (VM). The VM will be hosted on an ESXi server. What is the requirement with regards to Symmetrix gatekeeper (GK) devices?

 

A. VM should have access to GKs presented as RDMs in Physical Compatibility mode

B. VM should have access to GKs presented as RDMs in Virtual Compatibility mode

C. ESXi should have PowerPath/VE installed and access to GKs over multiple paths

D. ESXi should have access to GKs and the NMP path selection policy should be set to Round Robin

 

Answer: A  

 

Question: 12  

 

A customer is using Replication Manager using Microsoft Volume Shadow Service (VSS) to backup their Exchange 2010 environment hosted on a Symmetrix VMAX storage array. To improve performance of backup and maintenance tasks, which allocation unit size should be used to format the Exchange database and log volumes?

 

A. 32K

B. 64K

C. 4096

D. 8192

 

Answer: B  

 

 

EMC

Exam Name: EMC Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators

E20-814 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/E20-814.html

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000-456 Preparation Material10/7/2013

IBM

Exam Name: IBM XIV Storage System Technical Solutions V4

000-456 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/000-456.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

 

Question: 1        

 

When is the command xcii --protect used?

 

A. to create an encrypted host on the XIV

B. to create an encrypted volume on the XIV

C. to create an encrypted file with username and password for XCLl usage

D. to create an encrypted file with all commands used after command has been entered

 

Answer: C        

 

Question: 2        

 

On XIV what factors are important to successfully implement asynchronous mirroring?

 

A. data change rate, available bandwidth and interval

B. latency between the remote and local XIV, number of volumes must be less than 256

C. data change rate, number of volumes less than 256, required RPO

D. each mirror must have the same RPO and sync interval within the same storage pool

 

Answer: A        

 

Question: 3        

 

What is a benefit to IBM’s XIV SSD transparent read cache?

 

A. SSD read cache is a separate tier

C. performance improvement in sequential reads

C. real-time cache algorithm; not policy-based

D. SSD drives add usable capacity without user intervention

 

Answer: C        

 

Question: 4     

 

How many active module interconnects are there between data modules on an XIV system Model A14?

 

A. one Ethernet connection

B. two Ethernet connections

C. four Ethernet connections

D. six Ethernet connections

 

Answer: B     

 

Question: 5     

 

Where is the XIV VSS Provider software installed?

 

A. as a plug-in to the XIV GUI

B. on the XIV maintenance module

C. on servers or VMs connected to the XIV system

D. on the interface modules of the XIV system

 

Answer: C     

 

Question: 6     

 

When does XIV Gen3 SSD caching significantly improve performance?

 

A. for small block, random read I/O workloads

C. for GPES random workloads

C. for large block, sequential read I/O workloads

D. for small block, sequential write I/O workloads

 

Answer: A     

 

Question: 7     

 

Which of the following statements is true of the XIV architecture?

 

A. Storage Pools are used to group volumes with similar performance requirements.

B. For each mirrored 1 MB partition, one copy is always on an interface module.

C. In a fifteen module XIV, fifteen physical disks are allocated as hot spares.

D. Every logical volume is spread over every physical drive.

 

Answer: D     

 

Question: 8     

 

A TELCO customer has an application that generates intensive small block random reads. The customer installed one XIV Gen3 system and is dissatisfied with this choice. They have enough performance on writes and sufficient capacity.

In order to consolidate more applications what should the technical specialist advise?

 

A. order an extra frame with SAS 15k drives

B. order the SSD option and use it in conjunction with Q0S

C. use external storage with FC drives and virtualize it under XIV

D. request IBM to change the nearline SAS drives with SAS 10k drives

 

Answer: B     

 

 

IBM

Exam Name: IBM XIV Storage System Technical Solutions V4

000-456 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/000-456.html

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000-273 E-Books10/7/2013

IBM

Exam Name: IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V8.0 Integration Development

000-273 PDF
http://www.testsexpert.com/000-273.html
Click the link below to buy full version as Low as $39

15% Discount Coupon:  52192S1005

 

Question: 1        

 

An integration developer has configured a BPEL business process for a customer, as shown below:

 

What behavior will the integration developer observe when executing the flow?

 

A. It is possible for both Snippet2 and Snippet3 to execute.

B. The execution order of the links entering Snippet2 and Snippet3 has no impact on the process flow.

C. The gateway leading into Snippet5 will cause an error because there is a deadlock in the process flow.

D. The gateway leading into Snippet4 will cause an error because the link exiting Snippet2 has no condition.

 

Answer: C        

 

Question: 2        

 

An integration developer registers two Process Centers with each other and needs to share a child toolkit 'TK-Child' while preserving the dependency with its parent toolkit 'TK-Parent'. How should a integration developer accomplish this? Set Snapshot status of:

 

A. TK-Child to 'New' and share it with other Process Centers

B. TK-Child to 'Released' and share it with other Process Centers

C. TK-Parent to 'Released', TK-Child to 'New' and share both toolkits with other Process Centers

D. TK-Parent to 'Released', TK-Child to 'Released' and share both toolkits with other Process Centers

 

Answer: D        

 

Question: 3        

 

A client requires that a new BPEL process return a fault message to the requester in case the process does not complete correctly. The integration developer has added a fault handler to the process to catch all exceptions. How should the integration developer return the fault message?

 

A. Use a throw activity of a business fault.

B. Use a reply activity using a standard fault.

C. Use a reply activity using a business fault defined in the interface.

D. Use a rethrow activity in the fault handler on the process scope using a fault defined in the interface.

 

Answer: C        

 

Question: 4     

 

An integration developer has implemented the business process shown in the exhibits below.

 

 

If the integration developer starts an instance of the ProcessA process with an input of "HELLO", which of the following strings will the LogSnippet snippet write to System.out? If the integration developer starts an instance of the ProcessA process with an input of "HELLO", which of the following strings will the LogSnippet snippet write to System.out? If the integration developer starts an instance of the ProcessA process with an input of "HELLO", which of the following strings will the LogSnippet snippet write to System.out?

 

A. output1=ORIGINAL :: aString=ORIGINAL

B. output1=ORIGINAL :: aString=MODIFIED

C. output1=MODIFIED :: aString=ORIGINAL

D. output1=MODIFIED :: aString=MODIFIED

 

Answer: C      

 

Question: 5     

 

An integration developer is planning to create a BPEL process to help with the management of customer requests. The developer is intending to use a short-running process for the implementation because it has been determined that the performance of the process is a high priority, but the process must also be able to compensate for changes to the customer's request. What approach should the integration developer take while implementing this process?

 

A. Implement the short-running process as planned, but call the appropriate compensation activity from a fault handler in the process.

B. Implement the short-running process as planned, but associate an undo-operation with the appropriate invoke activity in the process.

C. Since compensation is not supported in short-running processes, implement a long-running process using compensation pairs.

D. Since compensation is not supported in short-running processes, use a compensation handler and a compensation pair together in the log-running process

 

Answer: B     

 

Question: 6     

 

An integration developer is planning to create a BPEL process which will invoke an external service. It was determined that the service will be required to run in its own transaction and will be invoked synchronously by the BPEL. The integration developer immediately configures an SCA import in the Assembly Diagram to satisfy these requirements, generates the skeleton BPEL process, and passes the project on to a colleague to complete the BPEL implementation. While completing the implementation of the BPEL, what must the integration developer's colleague consider in the configuration of the Invoke activity used for calling the external service?

 

A. No time should be spent on the transactional behavior attribute for the Invoke activity because the setting will be ignored for this service.

B. No time should be spent on the transactional behavior attribute for the Invoke activity because the behavior will be determined by the internal

implementation of the service.

C. Great care should be taken when selecting a setting for the transactional behavior attribute for the Invoke activity in the BPEL because this

behavior cannot be set the the Assembly diagram.

D. Great care should be taken when selecting a setting for the transactional behavior attribute of the Invoke activity because the settings made in the BPEL will override the settings previously made in the Assembly Diagram.

 

Answer: A     

 

Question: 7     

 

An integration developer has configured a BPEL business process for a customer, as shown below:

 

Assume that the transaction behavior of both snippets is Commit After. What behavior will the integration developer observe when executing the flow? Snippet1 and Snippet2 will run in:

 

A. separate parallel transactions.A.separate parallel transactions.

B. separate sequential transactions.B.separate sequential transactions.

C. a single transaction separate from the transaction running Assign2.C.a single transaction separate from the transaction running Assign2.

D. a single transaction separate from the transaction running Assign1.D.a single transaction separate from the transaction running Assign1.

 

Answer: B     

 

 

IBM

Exam Name: IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V8.0 Integration Development

000-273 Questions
http://www.testsexpert.com/000-273.html

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